Form: Reply

FROM QUORA

—“Leaving racial supremacy theories aside, what is the fact and what is the fiction behind the Nazi version of Aryan history?”—

CONTROVERSIAL

1) The Nazi propaganda was absolutely pseudoscientific nonsense. We have to understand that the Nazi program was aesthetic – a sort of secular religion – to inspire people who were utterly hopeless and defeated. It was the most successful pseudo-religious program after Marxism – and it was invented largely to oppose marxism (bolshevism) as was all fascism.

So the nazis were speaking in a sort of secular religious prose of nationalism the same way that today’s american and western postmodernists speak in a sort of secular religious prose (“Political Correctness”). These are outright falsehoods, and todays academy (postmodernists) openly admit that they are speaking falsehoods because “all that matters is power, not truth, and truth is a weapon of the aristocracy”.

The problem arises when we try to treat these movements with anglo-empirical-legal understanding rather than continental-fictional-philosophical understanding, which is simply religious “fictions” (falsehoods) or political ‘ideologies’. It’s inspirational, like myth and religion, not historical or scientific.

2) HOWEVER, first, the late 19th century archeologists were correct, in that the indo europeans were of Aryan (PIE) origins, and that that origin was in Europe (or at least in Ukraine), and that these people moved westward in waves, and brought with them aryanism (paternal, aristocratic, sky worshipping, expansionary, militaristic, technological) civilization, and that they settled in what is today’s poland, spread, and spread into high (Denmark,German) middle (Celtic), and lower (Ital and Hellenic) civilizations, without major impact on old europe (balkans) who were the first major metalworkers.

How do we know?

a) neoteny (domestication) (morphology, endocrine expression, personality traits)

c) verbal acuity (appears we have been trading spatial for verbal for a long time)

b) demographic distribution (very little underclass, if any).

c) Selection for long winters, close quarters, indoors.

In other words, the dozen or so minor races began local speciation, and the delta is highest in Haplogroup I(nordics), and gentility highest (apparently) in slavs.

Manorialism began in today’s Holland in the 7th or 8th century, and served to extend the meritocracy of scandinavians, high germans, and baltics. It spread southward (via the Hajnal line). And the germanic prohibition on capital punishment was eliminated first by romans, but by the 12th century reversed, and capital punishment was aggressively used through the end of the 19th century.

The far east and far west achieved higher rates of neoteny, albeit from different generations of homo sapiens sapiens, with greater selection pressure on the most northern peoples. (Something happens with cro-magnon generation and we don’t know yet what that was.)

The simple difference of lactose tolerance meant 40% more calories from the same food source for doing nothing, and this, with bronze, wheel, horse, voluntary militia, and Individual Sovereignty is the reason for indo european expansion.

The steppe and desert (Tribal peoples) did not go thrugh this process and instead under fertile crescent food production, expanded the underclasses.

So the asymmetry of our cultures is due in large part to the differences in selection pressures resulting in asymmetric distribution of classes. In other words, far east and far west reduced underclasses, and everyone else increased them.

The difference between far east and far west is western verbal acumen, and easter spatial acumen. The reason for this I think I understand, but is due to the time at which each group left africa.