—-“Should whites pay reparations for colonialism?’—
I wonder, if white people ( Native Europeans) should collect taxes (Income) for their spread of Aristotelianism (Science), Natural Law under Reciprocity by Tort (Rule of Law), Accounting, Finance, Banking, Credit, and Interest, and The suppression of systemic corruption and in doing so dragging the whole of humanity kicking and screaming, in one revolt after another out of ignorance, superstition, hard physical labor, child labor, poverty, diseases, infanticide, and tyranny in less than 500 years. When beginning with the Abrahamic Dark Age (Judaism, Christianity and Islam, the world had made little caloric progress for almost two thousand years.)
As far as I know, the only mistake white people have made is entering into a civil war with cousins in Germany, that was initiated by communists, starting in Russia, and spreading like islam today (westward) to the point of internal exhaustion, and therefore leaving the colonial problem incomplete, and therefore leaving so much of the world to struggle through the long process of corruption-suppression, rule of law development, and middle class development, while the only western peoples left standing (Americans, Australians, and Canadians) were geographically isolated from the less developed peoples – all of whom still struggle with corruption, truthfulness, rule of law, moral commerce, and dysgenic reproduction rates.
WHAT DOES THE WORLD OWE THE GREEKS AND ROMANS?
WHAT DOES THE WORLD OWE NATIVE NORTHERN EUROPEANS (WHITES)?
Hmm… Romans considered slavery a process of domesticating wild human animals. American colonialists considered their own a little more charitably, and considered africans far less charitably.
Roman slavery generally allowed you to progress upward and outward. Slavery began with agrarianism and ended with industrialism. So american slavery began with indentured servitude (contract slavery), and ended with chattel slavery (people as domesticated animal property).
In the ancient world, man was everywhere primitive and violence and starvation a constant threat. The romans ‘civilized’ people by the developmental sequence ‘wild(barbarian)’ -> Slavery-Child -> Soldier(Serf) -> Freeman(property) -> Citizen (political participation) -> “Peer” or Politician -> Nobility. Some people could make the transition and some could not. (Just like today under market conditions.)
In the American world, we were very little different from the Roman, but far more domesticated from centuries of manorialism.
It is too impolitic to answer this question honestly and directly. But in general, there is a very large difference between the late medieval and early modern european who was genetically middle class, and underutilized capital, in a europe where the church had made half of the territory into dead, rent-seeking, capital —-and the industrial world (after 1830) where we were importing people who were not (in the majority) from the genetic middle class, not pent up human capital in large numbers, into a world where capital (land) was freely available.
We are still struggling with this problem a century and a half later. Race is immaterial outside of politics and marriage, but CLASS IS NOT. And class is a consequence of current and past genetics.
And the problematic difference between racial groups is how successful or unsuccessful they have been at suppression of underclass reproduction over the past thousand years. Because with that suppression you get east asians, europeans, and ashkenazi jews. But without it you get the entire rest of the world: underclasses so large that it is not possible for their middle and upper classes to create a high trust high velocity socio-political economy.
You can measure all personality traits, IQ, testosterone levels, and age of onset of puberty. If you measure these traits in all groups you will rapidly see that the differences between the groups is largely demographic: class size.
https://www.quora.com/How-is-Roman-slavery-different-from-American-slavery