It appears that a european male needs a higher IQ than an ashkenazi to compose the same fluidity of sentences, just as it requires a male of higher IQ to speak with the fluidity of women. Just as the east asians very rarely approximate european levels of speech despite what certainly appears to be higher intelligence. I want to understand this. Meaning I want to understand if its true, or if it’s a problem of language.
I know that by developing propertarianism I developed a language for speaking what I could not speak rationally without it. But retraining yourself to speak in the ‘economic transactions’ of operational propertarian speech is as hard as learning another language.
I think that if we were taught this language from a young age, that we would think as much more clearly about the world (and better voice our ideas) as we did between religion and empiricism.
Apr 15, 2018 9:07am