AFAIK a state can only violate a judgment of the supreme court if it is beyond t

AFAIK a state can only violate a judgment of the supreme court if it is beyond their constitutional authority. Their constitutional authority is outlined in the constitution, bill of rights, and amendments. Among those is the right to bear arms.
What happens then when states do?


Source date (UTC): 2022-12-29 21:23:17 UTC

Original post: https://twitter.com/i/web/status/1608574398675709952

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