No. That’s false. That’s the normal distribution. THat’s what we see in the data. The psychometricians alter the sets of questions so that they each produce a normal distribution in a population. Otherwise the test would accumulate bias. They don’t accumulate bias.
Source date (UTC): 2021-06-20 21:02:39 UTC
Original post: https://twitter.com/i/web/status/1406719165247930379
Reply addressees: @kareem_carr
Replying to: https://twitter.com/i/web/status/1406300834057555972
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