No. You are under the illusion that (a) financial interests are the same as money, (b) a pareto distribution of financial interests is not necessary. BUT you aren’t asking the right question: why are the extractive financial interests (credit) not owned by the government?
Source date (UTC): 2020-03-24 11:08:44 UTC
Original post: https://twitter.com/i/web/status/1242407998233944064
Reply addressees: @_SemaHernandez_
Replying to: https://twitter.com/i/web/status/1242284116386762753
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