Why did Rothbard (and Hoppe) choose intersubjectively verifiable property, rather than the vast empirical evidence of law for thousands of years in so many civilizations? Why do you rely on a principle rather than a complete declarative and testable sentence (law)?
Source date (UTC): 2019-10-02 20:43:21 UTC
Original post: https://twitter.com/i/web/status/1179497119603929088
Reply addressees: @StefanMolyneux @philosophicart @MrsMMissy
Replying to: https://twitter.com/i/web/status/1179494418317021184
IN REPLY TO:
Unknown author
@StefanMolyneux @philosophicart @MrsMMissy That is why we should have a conversation – so that you can move on. It’s the conversation many have asked us to have. Start: What is the market demand for definition of morality categorized as property, sufficient to resolve disputes vs end in retaliation cycles? For Polities?
Original post: https://x.com/i/web/status/1179494418317021184
IN REPLY TO:
@curtdoolittle
@StefanMolyneux @philosophicart @MrsMMissy That is why we should have a conversation – so that you can move on. It’s the conversation many have asked us to have. Start: What is the market demand for definition of morality categorized as property, sufficient to resolve disputes vs end in retaliation cycles? For Polities?
Original post: https://x.com/i/web/status/1179494418317021184
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