So the germans haven’t been far out of aristocracy, they had developed the first

So the germans haven’t been far out of aristocracy, they had developed the first professional bureaucracies in Europe, and had them before democracy.

So they never rebelled against the aristocracy, and trust their government.

The French rebelled against aristocracy and church.

The English against the continent in general and did not have the fracture or diversity of the French, and the Americans against the aristocracy but not the church.

So the “Demand for Authority” took very different routes across the european plain given the path to modernity.

But (as Candice Mary is trying to get to) the maternalism (heavy in France, less so in Germany, non-existent in the slavic lands, and still dominating the south, …. that demand is constant over time.

And was constant in old (south eastern) Europe in antiquity since they had the least admixture from the north…. ok. ok. I can start to see how this works now.

(Why is it that you, more than anyone, point me in the right direction when I am off?) thank you.