DECLINE IN EUROPEAN INTELLIGENCE BUT NOT IN AVERAGE IQ? So if the population of

DECLINE IN EUROPEAN INTELLIGENCE BUT NOT IN AVERAGE IQ?

So if the population of people above 130 remains constant. And the population of people below 105 increases, but we eliminate a large portion of people below 90 who were previously subject to deprivation, and the conversion from discreet rules to general scientific rules generates an equally distributed gain of one standard deviation, we would see the Flynn effect AND see the decline response time effect, but preserve the rates of innovation at the top. Also we can see similar population shifts are replacements rather than devolution. So yes, the data is OPERATIONAL explainable.

That’s the explanation as I understand it.