ON PROPERTARIANISM’S COMMENSURABILITY OF MEANING —“Curt: Why is linguistic com

ON PROPERTARIANISM’S COMMENSURABILITY OF MEANING

—“Curt: Why is linguistic commensurability most pertinent empirically? Is their evidence to suggest so or is this still purely hypothetical?”— Rik

Curt Doolittle

Well, let us take your sentence as an example:

—“Why is linguistic commensurability most pertinent empirically?”—

Translated:

Why do people who desire to communicate and cooperate need the same, and therefore commensurable, definitions if they are to report upon their observations if we are to report without ignorance, error, bias, and deceit?

Do ya see what I did there? I took all the words that LOOKED like you (people) understood what they mean, and I replaced them with what they mean in the consistent grammar of acting. Once I did that then the question answers itself.

The vast majority of our arguments in modernity can be reduced to poetry using pseudoscientific rather than moral, literary, or mythological verse.

I have tried to repair that fact with propertarianism.