PROPERTY RIGHTS QUESTION?
Can anyone explain to me why we assume that we have a right to anticipated natural rates of interest? In other words, why is non-diluted money-proper (commodity money, private money or fiat money), and the expansion of purchasing power of such money, due to increases in demand, a property right?
(Smart people only please. ie: no empty moralisms.)
I might be loopy on asthma meds right now but I am trying to resolve this question once and for all. And I can’t find a reason, stated as property rights, why we have the right to privatize increases in value of money, or to profit from the shortage of money.
Thanks
Source date (UTC): 2014-06-09 06:27:00 UTC
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