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  • TURNING RATIONALISM ON ITS HEAD – AS AUTHORITARIANISM (from elsewhere) Thanks An

    TURNING RATIONALISM ON ITS HEAD – AS AUTHORITARIANISM

    (from elsewhere)

    Thanks Andrew:

    In regard to my statement:

    —“So no statement that is not open to sympathetic testing (falsification) by operational means (sympathetic testing) can be ‘true’, nor ‘scientific’ since ‘scientific’ refers to morally warrantable constraint upon one’s statements.”—

    You argue:

    –“It is important to consider if this statement itself is scientific or ‘true’ by its own terms. “–

    Well, this is a rationalist position, not a scientific position. So what is important to a person who justifies arguments to see if they are true (a rationalist), and a person who criticizes hypotheses to see if they are provide predictive results (a scientist) is considerably different.

    A frequent fallacy of philosophical argument is that there are two, not three arguments. They are 1) Rationalist, 2) Empiricist, and 3) Scientific. 1 and 2 are philosophical justifications. 3 is not. It merely seeks what works. Philosophers attempt quite often to cast as justificationary (under their control) that which does not seek justification, but only seeks to perform.

    A scientist seeks to testify that he has done due diligence, he does not seek to make true statements. After his due diligence, and after the community’s due diligence, that which survives remains hypothesis theory or law.

    Science is not philosophical, but like law, practical. By practical application law evolves, and by practical applicatoin, science evolves. We philosophers attempt to explain this, but we do not inform science. We inform others about the progress of science. (Which in itself is an interesting phenomenon.)

    Science then does not bear a burden of analytic truth. It bears only its evolved polycentric, normative, laws against error, bias, and deception in the presentation of theories. Those laws are often poorly articulated (outside of experimental psychology). We can analyze those laws and translate them into philosophical terms as a warranty (promise) that theories are:

    i) internally consistent (logical)

    ii) externally correspondent (correlative)

    iii) empirical (observable)

    iv) operational (existentially possible)

    v) falsifiable

    vi) reasonably falsified

    Now, a good critical rationalist would say that all those criteria are means of falsification (criticism), not justifications, as most rationalists would attempt to assert. However, I see this as again, non-performative (verbalist) rationalist language. And instead that these are our evolved conditions of intellectual warranty, that have survived the test of time by eliminating error, bias, and deception.

    (a) “is the statement falsifiable?”

    My statement is reducible to “only existentially possible human operations – whether mental or physical – can exist”. This is a metaphysical not epistemological assertion. So the proposition that we must falsify a metaphysical statement is inapplicable. Without this stipulation no further argument is possible on any grounds.

    Just for fun: If we could state that existentially impossible human actions can exist, then yes it is falsifiable. Just as if we state that existentially impossible mathematical operations can exist. While both of these things are hard to conceive of, that does not mean that they cannot be constructed, just as we did not imaging that length was a local rather than absolute concept. (Einstein/Brouwer). all premises are theoretical, even metaphysical premises.

    Can something demonstrably exist, and can such a thing be observable? Since (this is the point of empiricist arguments) we can both sympathize with one another (or we could not cooperate on intentions) and observe our own reaction to incentive-producing phenomenon, we can in fact, make internal observations, and we can collect external, empirical observations from others. (We do. All the time. In many disciplines. )

    Now it is possible that say, the quantum theory of subconscious communication is possible, but that would only state that we were not conscious, not that we reacted to incentives (information). And that we could not observe it, just as we cannot observe many of our intuitionistic functions of the mind. They are hidden from us.

    Next;

    (b) “Not being an empirical statement, it cannot itself be empirically tested.”

    Well, it being a metaphysical statement that is its definition.

    But that said, this is a good example of the rationalist fallacy. Given that empirical means observable, that I know of, we cannot make non-empirical statements. This is the debate between empiricism and rationalism. Measurements are empirical observations. Internal observations of our own sensations are empirical observations. The question is whether we insert error, bias, and deception into those observations. We are not trying to assert observations are true, we are trying to assert that observations are reasonably free of all possible error, bias, and deception.

    Moreover, isolating and constructing a demonstrative test is useful only in those circumstances where we seek to uncover first principles (reduce variables). Not in those cases where we seek to discover emergent phenomenon in fully informed (existential) reality, in real time (study variables). Economics requires the latter. In physics the former. In economics we can subjectively test incentives – that is why we can cooperate, and why apes don’t (well). It is why we can use juries in courts. But we cannot deduce from incentives all possible emergent economic phenomenon, which while based upon simple rules produces fractal results (emergent complexity we cannot anticipate). In physics by contrast we do not know the first principles – we cannot empathize or sympathize with the physical universe (yet).

    Another rationalist fallacy: it is MORE accurate to collect unintentionally constructed data and see if it fits your model, than it is to construct an experiment and intentionally construct data. This is one of the benefits of economic data over other tests: we collect demonstrated preferences (performatively-true testimonies). Whereas we have demonstrated that we cannot collect performatively-true testimonies in most cases because of error bias and deception.

    (c) “There is the question of science vs. orthodoxy.”

    Orthodoxy is a justificationist position not a scientific one.

    So, actually, the question is normative (as practiced), juridical(survives criticism), and metaphysical(existentially possible). Philosophy as practiced is largely justificationary for ancient reasons. Science is demonstrative and theoretical for equally ancient reasons – largely to avoid the politically normative, which is highly loaded with error, bias and deception.

    For this reason it behooves us to recognize that philosophy as practiced is a political activity, not a scientific one. That is why the most sophisitcated deceptions in history have been constructed via rationalist means. First monotheism was developed argumentatively as an authoritarian vehicle. Next philosophical argument. Then pseudoscientific. Finally postmodern abandoned all truth and reason.

    So the problem is not that science, must meet philosophical standards, but that rationalists must prove that they do not practice world history’s most successful art of lying, bias, and error. Since most great deceptions were carried out by rationalist rather than scientific means. Not the least of which were the church’s integration of aristotelianism, Rousseau’s justification and responsibilty for the horrors of the revolution, Kant’s authoritarianism and responsibilty for making marxism possible, marx’s responsibility for the death of 100M, Keynesianism’s responsibilty for western civilization’s suicide, freudian psychology’s century long survival and all the damage it has done to individuals, cantorian sets and the platonization of math and physics, scientific socialism and the loss of eastern europe, and the postmodern and feminist attacks on the family – the central unit of reproduction.

    So rationalists must warrant that they do no harm, scientists must not warrant, and do not warrant that they speak the truth. Only that they have done due diligence against doing harm to the informational commons via error bias and deception. Could we hold a court to convict both rationalists and scientists on the harm done by error, bias and deception, the prisons would be filled with rationalists and nearly empty of scientists.

    Because the harm done by rationalists, is only exceeded by the great plagues. In that sense rationalism (justificationism) is an intellectual plague that we are justified in exterminating. (Which is to some small degree part of my work.)

    (d) ” it is an interesting philosophy that states that philosophy is to be excluded from consideration.”

    This statement requires that we agree on the term ‘philosophy’. Since in my work, I argue i think persuasively, that there isn’t any difference if both philosophy and science are subject to the same criterion. If science, philosophy, morality and law are not identical in content then someone is engaged in error, deception, or bias.

    Instead, I state that rationalism (at least german and jewish rationalism) is a justificationary, authoritarian cult that has produced catastrophic harm to man on the same scale as scriptural monotheism, and only slightly less terrible than the great plagues.

    And that is simply the result of looking at the evidence.

    CLOSING

    Hopefully I put this conversation into perspective, not only correcting a number of common rationalist fallacies.

    It might be a bit to swallow, but that’s just how it is.

    Curt Doolittle

    The Propertarian Institute

    L’viv Ukraine.


    Source date (UTC): 2015-01-02 04:47:00 UTC

  • GETTING EASIER TO GET ACROSS THE MAIN MESSAGE (reposted from elsewhere) The scie

    GETTING EASIER TO GET ACROSS THE MAIN MESSAGE

    (reposted from elsewhere)

    The scientific method consists of a set of moral rules on what scientists must consider truthful testimony. Otherwise no ‘method’ exists. The scope of these moral rules has evolved during the twentieth century in ways that I think very few people, scientists included, understand. (I will go into this a bit later if need be.)||

    Scientists do not practice (or even pay any attention to) philosophy or philosophers. Philosophers tend to be justificationists, but scientists do not practice justification. So no, scientists do not defend arenas using logic at all. That is what philosophers do when they try to defend one epistemological justification or another. Scientists demonstrate. They do not justify. Philosphers justify. So no, they did not evolve nor are they practiced by similar means. Rationalism and science are practiced by opposite means: justification versus demonstration and warranty.

    Scientists, and the discipline of science operate upon these epistemological principles:

    (a) we know nothing for certain, and may never be able to know anything for certain. (the most parsimonious non tautological statement possible).

    (b) we know what works and what doesn’t work. Everything else we say is just hypothesis, theory and law

    (c) all knowledge is theoretical (intuition, hypothesis, theory, or law)

    (d) we can combine theories to create models, which themselves are theories.

    (d) To publish a theory (‘distribute an intellectual product for consumption’) one must subject it tests (Provide a Warranty) stating that it is:

    i) consistent (logical)

    ii) correspondent (correlative)

    iii) empirical (observable)

    iv) operational (existentially possible)

    v) falsifiable

    vi) reasonably falsified

    The scientific method consists, if anything, in meeting these moral constraints upon their statements. It is their job to speak truthfully. But they never claim to state the truth. Even mathematicians (of any degree of sophistication) will say that truth is a problem of philosophy, while proof is a problem of mathematics.

    Mises’ argument is false because there are no non-trivial, non-tautological, certain, premises. If, as Einstein demonstrated, even time and length are concepts that we cannot count upon (length is the argument used to demonstrate the fallacy of even geometric premises). While we may imagine a point or a line, we cannot construct one. While we may imagine infinite sets, we cannot construct one. While we may imagine the square root of two, it cannot exist without a physical context to determine its arbitrary precision and therefore its existence.

    So no. Mises’ rationalism is a good story. But it’s just a story. An analogy.

    In order to warranty a statement as truthfully represented, it must meet the criteria that scientists have put forward. Science is merely a moral discipline for the purpose of truth telling. If we cannot say it scientifically then we cannot warrant that we are saying it truthfully: free of all possible error, bias, and deception.

    Mises was trying to combat the abuse of pseudoscience in economics, but he did not, as Brouwer did in math and Bridgman did in physics, discover Intuitionism, Operationalism and Operationism: the necessary test of existential possibility that checks our premises against the context in which we apply them. Praxeology was very close. But he got it wrong. If we see him in this light, as failing in economics where others succeeded in math and science, we can see Mises as part of a triumvirate that tried to add a new moral constraint to the sciences consistent with, or perhaps as an extension of falsification.

    It is unfortunate, since the reason Brouwer and Bridgman were not influential was that they failed to grasp that they were making a moral argument to the externalities caused by failing to demonstrate tests of existential possibility. whereas in economics, EVERYTHING WE WORRY ABOUT IS A PRODUCT OF EXTERNALITIES.

    Had Mises gone with Science rather than Rationalism we might have saved a century of semi-pseudoscientific argument only recently overthrown. Because in economics, externalities matter. It matters that Keynesian macro is an attempt to justify the manufacture of vast, slowly accumulating, negative externalities that burn down social and genetic capital. It matters that mathematicians talk about a mathematical reality that does not and cannot exist; that Cantorian sets are a bit of verbal nonsense by which to substitute quantity in timeless state, with frequency in a state where time is present. It matters that mathematical physics has seem to be nearly fruitless compared to physical experimentation, and that the entire multiple-world hypothesis was as nonsensical as we intuited.

    Externalities matter. And that is before we start talking about postmodernism: the most elaborate lie developed since the invention of theism.

    So the truthful, testifiable statement, is not the one mises makes, but that no economic statement that cannot be reduced to sympathetically testable operations can be true. AND any economic proposition that has not been reduced to a sequence of sympathetically testable operations can be stated to be ethical and or moral.

    So no statement that is not open to sympathetic testing (falsification) by operational means (sympathetic testing) can be ‘true’, nor ‘scientific’ since ‘scientific’ refers to morally warrantable constraint upon one’s statements.

    Curt Doolittle

    The Propertarian Institute

    L’viv, Ukraine.


    Source date (UTC): 2015-01-01 14:03:00 UTC

  • “Depending upon one’s conception of rights and what they logically entail or are

    —“Depending upon one’s conception of rights and what they logically entail or are incompatible with, it’s not difficult to see, for example, that the corpus of the libertarian program, in logical terms cannot countenance “add-ons” in so far as they are obligations that legitimate the use of force. The shortest, most concise illustration of how this follows from the premise that there is only one negative right, namely to not be aggressors against. Philosophers, such as Roderick Tracy Long argue that this positive thesis of one negative right entails a second negative thesis that logically denies and additional positive rights. If the former is granted, the latter follows, in virtue of the logical character of the obligations it entails.”—

    Ok, so, the reason it’s a nonsense argument is because the definition is circular. More precisely, “petitio principii”, or less precisely, “begging the question”. Like many cosmopolitan, authoritarian, questions-that-are-not-questions, aggression is a conclusion, not a premise. It is a justification. And like many cosmopolitan arguments it is reinforced by the use of in-group guilt (shaming), despite the fact that it is an out-group argument (attempt to preserve separatism.)

    So lets look at it….

    The term “Aggress” is like “Good”. It means nothing without context. And that is the first deceptive use of the term aggression. One must aggress against something. So we must know what that something is. Otherwise it is, like all obscurant verbal deceptions in incomplete sentence – left incomplete as a means of deception. Just as use of the verb ‘to-be’ is nearly always a means of obscuring one’s ignorance, or one’s intentional obfuscation of causal relations.

    It is impossible to define aggression without defining property. So the principle deception involved when most moral intuitionists state their position is that they rely on the INTUITIVE definition of property of the audience, while assuming a narrower definition of property themselves. In the Rothbard Hoppe case, they refer to physical property – intersubjectively verifiable property. However, this eliminates all possible commons, and licenses all unethical and immoral action.

    Then, when questioned, Rothbardians give one of the following excuses:

    (a) people can make contracts for that. But if they did, then what would the basis of that law be? and would they not ostracize all non-adherents in order to reduce transaction costs and increase compliance? Isn’t that the rational and demonstrated action – everywhere?

    (b) “the market will take care of it through competition.” Except that we can prove empirically that it doesn’t. In fact, we need extraordinary levels of suppression of immoral and unethical behavior for market competition to form.

    (c) “It’s meant only to be a guiding principle, not a basis for law.” Well then why not just use the definition of property necessary for a basis of law or morality?

    I could also just say that do we not force people to pay restitution in the case of accidents? Are accidents aggression? No. They are violations of property. Are immoral and unethical actions that cause loss to others mutually productive? (No) So are they rational to tolerate? (no). Do we retaliate against others for immoral and unethical actions? (yes) So aggression is insufficient for describing necessary conditions of human cooperation (Yes). And aren’t all attempts to justify defining these things as aggression — even though they are not — just verbal deceptions? They are ’caused losses’, right? So don’t we retaliate against caused losses, and isn’t retaliation what we seek to eliminate – just as much as seeking to eliminate caused losses?

    Well a rothbardian then attempts another deception: “Well that would mean competition is a ‘bad’, since it imposes losses.” But the honest man says, “No, in fact people do treat price competition as immoral (although not quality competition) and we have merely trained one another out of objecting to it by explaining that it is a cost of producing the incentive to innovate.”

    Why is it that Rothbard picked aggression, out of all the possible criteria for moral definitions? Why does no other group select this argument?

    When, I could just as easily ask,” How can we prevent retaliation for immoral and unethical actions – how can we license parasitism?” And conclude aggression.

    Or I could ask “How can we free ride upon another’s expensive-to-produce commons?” And come to aggression.

    Or I could ask, “What defines both criminal, ethical, and moral, conduct?” And come to aggression.

    Or I could ask, “How can I define ethical, moral and just using the terms of prohibited actions between states (aggression), between internal polities (separatism), and just ignore the fact that internal polities pay the costs of defense?” And I would come to aggression.

    Why would anyone in the world pick aggression as a definition, UNLESS the purpose of picking aggression was to justify the conclusions contained in it?

    Why, if aggression is not sufficient for law, and not sufficient for ethics and morality, is it meaningful? If you start with the presumption of aggression, WHY start with it?

    In propertarianism, I start with the question: “Why should I not kill you and take your women and your stuff? Oh? Cooperation might be more beneficial? Under what conditions would cooperation be more beneficial than killing you and taking your things? I see! As long as it’s mutually beneficial. As long as I get more than I would if I killed you and took your women and your things.” That would be the evolutionary attempt to solve the problem.

    I could also start with the question: “What incentives make it possible for the rational formation of a voluntary polity?” In that case, transaction costs prohibit the rational formation of a voluntary polity under aggression; and furthermore, other polities demonstrably exterminate such low trust competitors. That would be the rational solution to the problem.

    I could also start with the question “Under what definitions of property has liberty demonstrably evolved?” In which case I would see that only under total prohibition on immoral and unethical as well as criminal actions. That would be the empirical approach to the question.

    I could ask the question, “How can morality and law be constructed synonymously?” That would be the institutional approach to the problem.

    I could ask a lot of possible questions that are much more obvious, and NOT circular. So why is it that I would make a circular argument?

    The only logical reasons to start with aggression are (a) to justify prohibition on retaliation for immoral and unethical actions, (b) to justify non-contribution to the commons (free-riding separatism). Aggression is a means of defining low trust, parasitic, separatist ghetto ethics as ‘good’ despite the fact that all empirical evidence suggests that it makes a people unable to hold land, dependent upon a host population, and open to perpetual attempts at extermination.

    So, why would an honest person start with something as arbitrary as the rather elaborate concept of ‘aggression’?

    Well the answer is, he wouldn’t. Which is why no honest person ever has.

    The libertarian is unaware that any argument sufficiently complex to overwhelm reason must be resolved through intuition – and that libertarian moral intuition is false (incomplete). In other words, libertarians are suckers for certain categories of lies. Just like all humans are suckers for certain categories of lies – all for the same reason.

    (ASIDE: This overloading, suggestion, and appeal to intuition as a means of using internal biases to deceive the audience is the secret to the cosmopolitan and rationalist verbalisms. My goal over the next year or two is to fully undermine the cosmopolitan and german rationalist argument structures and demonstrate them for what they are: lies. The anglo enlightenment argument is wrong: universalism, aristocracy of everyone, the rational actor. But it isn’t a lie. And that’s what science does for us: it unmasks lies.)

    Curt Doolittle

    The Propertarian Institute

    L’viv (Lion) Ukraine.


    Source date (UTC): 2015-01-01 13:28:00 UTC

  • INSURRECTION For those who have asked me about how difficult it is to create a r

    INSURRECTION

    For those who have asked me about how difficult it is to create a revolution, it should be obvious from the evidence of 2014, just how easy it is to bring the state and the economy to its knees by the simple act of individual aggression against state enforcers.

    But one must have something for insurrectionists to demand. A solution that the public will prefer to further degeneration into chaos.

    Demands must be actionable.


    Source date (UTC): 2015-01-01 07:34:00 UTC

  • (Two full time jobs. Even on holidays. Thankfully, no commute. lol)

    (Two full time jobs. Even on holidays. Thankfully, no commute. lol)


    Source date (UTC): 2015-01-01 07:21:00 UTC

  • THE 80/20 RULE OF WESTERN GENIUS? The Left’s Hatred of Dead White European Male

    THE 80/20 RULE OF WESTERN GENIUS?

    The Left’s Hatred of Dead White European Male (DWEM) Genius

    —“Human Accomplishment by Charles Murray (2003) makes clear that world-historical, genius level accomplishment is – or rather, was – numerically and proportionately a Dead White-European Male (DWEM) thing.”—

    Yes but I am pretty sure that I have stated WHY it was a DWEM thing: TRUTH.

    The question is how much of truth telling is genetic and how much is cultural. I tend to nearly ignore genetics in my arguments, and focus on distributions and norms – which is the opposite of the approach of the NRx movement per se.

    However, it is possible that europeans’ reduced impulsivity and aggression, plus our rather unique rather uniform mix of verbal and spatial intelligence produced some specific genetic advantage; or it is possible that we self-selected for lower impulsivity and aggression out of

    Watch how naturally white people work in formation. I don’t know if we selected for it or evolved it. But one way or another it’s part of us – combined risk. So that is what tends to make me think that western achievement is not entirely normative.

    But I am still with the 80/20 proposition, that while as individuals our behavior is 80% genetic and 20% emergent, that western uniqueness is 20% genetic and 80% dependent upon the emergent effects of truth-telling and outbreeding.


    Source date (UTC): 2015-01-01 05:55:00 UTC

  • ALTRUISM (Promoting Bruce Charleton)

    http://charltonteaching.blogspot.com/2014/12/the-psychology-of-abstract-suicide.htmlSUICIDAL ALTRUISM

    (Promoting Bruce Charleton)


    Source date (UTC): 2015-01-01 05:46:00 UTC

  • in anglo intelligence

    http://charltonteaching.blogspot.com/2014/12/hypothesised-massive-decline-in.htmlDecline in anglo intelligence


    Source date (UTC): 2014-12-31 17:49:00 UTC

  • Feeling emotional. Thank you for your friendship, support and criticism this yea

    Feeling emotional. Thank you for your friendship, support and criticism this year. It’s been a tough one all around. But we soldier onward.

    Truth is enough

    Particularly if we back it with violence.


    Source date (UTC): 2014-12-31 16:40:00 UTC

  • There is an ancient myth that has more than a grain of truth to it: if you can n

    There is an ancient myth that has more than a grain of truth to it: if you can name a demon you can control it. We all have true names. Meaning if we are fully understood we lose the power of deception.

    I am hot on the trail of a conceptual demon.

    I think it may take me another year or more to discover it’s true name.

    But when I do, I will kill it.

    Or at least arm others who will kill it.

    I made it pretty far with truth.

    Now I must understand how lies are constructed.


    Source date (UTC): 2014-12-31 16:29:00 UTC