Category: Civilization, History, and Anthropology

  • Variation Between the Races

    ( See also “Lewontin’s Fallacy” https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Human_Genetic_Diversity:_Lewontin%27s_Fallacy ) A common argument against the taxonomic validity of race is that there is more genetic variation within than between races and so races must not be genetically different enough to be subspecies. This argument comes from a 1972 paper by the Harvard geneticist Richard Lewontin (Lewontin 1972). As will be shown, Lewotin’s argument fails because the metric of genetic differences he used has no obvious relevance to subspecies and because human races are equally or more genetically differentiated than recognized subspecies from other species are. To understand Lewontin’s argument you have to have a conceptual grasp of a metric used in population genetics called an Fst value. Say we take two random animals from the species and look at what variant they have for some specific gene. There will be some probability, called the species’s total heterozygosity, that these gene variants will not be the same. Now say we do the same thing, but this time the two people are picked from the same sub-population within the species. This time the probability that their genes variants will not be the same will be called the sub-population heterozygosity. To calculate an Fst value you subtract a the sub-population heterozygosity from the total heterozygosity and then divide by the total heterozygosity: Fst = (Ht-Hs)/Ht In other words, an Fst value tells us how much the probability of picking different gene variants increases is the gene variants are picked at random from the entire species instead of the same sub-population. When calculating an Fst value, geneticists run this analysis for many genes and then find the average increase in heterozygosity. When an Fst value is calculated for a species with multiple proposed sub-populations the values are averaged. So, for instance, if we conducted a study and found that two people having different gene variants was 10% less likely if they were both picked randomly from the Asian population instead of humanity at large, 8% less likely if they were both from the European population instead of humanity at large, and 6% less likely if they were picked from the African population rather than humanity at large, we might assign humanity an Fst value of (10%+8%+6%)/3% = 8% under this 3 race model. And this is what we would mean if we said something like “Only 8% of human genetic variation is between races while 92% is within them”. (The proportion of variation within groups is just 1 – the Fst value.) In 1972, Richard Lewontin became the first person to empirically measure the human Fst value and found it to be 6.3%. Based on this finding, Lewontin declared that categorizing humans racially has no “genetic or taxonomic significance”. Unfortunately, Lewontin never explained why an Fst value of 6.3% should mean races have no taxonomic or genetic significance. And it isn’t obvious that it should. In fact, Sewall Wright, a founder of population genetics and the man who invented Fst values, thought that they had nothing to do measuring taxonomic significance and continued to believe in Human races long after Lewontin’s famous article (Wright 1984). That Lewontin’s idea never took hold in the world of biology can be seen by looking at a 2006 report be the U.S Geological Survey which reviewed more than a century of popular proposed criteria for when a population counts as a sub-species. It never mentioned Fst values let alone Lewontin’s paper (Haig et al. 2006). Since Lewontin’s paper, research has suggested that the Human Fst value is actually about twice as large, 12%, as what Lewontin suggested (Elhaik 2012). This has not altered the stance of Lewontin on races. Indeed, it isn’t obvious that his stance is open to changing because he has never said how high an Fst value would need to be in-order for a population to be of taxonomic signficance. Instead, he has just said that the human Fst value is too low. Furthermore, Lewontin has never addressed the fact that there are many species with recognized subspecies which have Fst values lower than Humans. As can be seen below, I was easily able to find 8 other species with recognized subspecies which have Fst values no higher than humans. In fact, it isn’t hard to find researchers in the nonhuman literature taking any Fst value greater than zero as evidence that a population is a subspecies. See, for instance, Lorenzen et al. 2007 and Williams, Homan, Johnston, and Linz, 2004. Given this, it is clear that most biologists do not use Lewontin’s criteria, whatever exactly that is, for subspecies. And given that he has never made any argument for using it, neither should we. Instead, many biologists use a criteria of subspecies based, in part, on the idea that a population can only be a subspecies if you can analyze the traits of an organism in that species and accurately predict whether or not it is a member of a proposed subspecies. Based on this traditional understanding of subspecies taxonomy, multiple geneticists have pointed out that an Fst value of 6% is just the average increased probability of a single gene being different and that, by combining data from multiple genes at once into our analysis, we can very accurately predict whether or not someone will be a member of a given race (Mitton 1977). To get a conceptual understanding of what this means, imagine that you were told to guess whether a person was a male or a female based on whether they were taller or shorter than average, or hairier or less hairy than average, or whether their voice was higher or lower pitched than average, etc. If only one of these facts were told to you, you could make an educated guess but there would be a decent chance that you would be wrong. But if you combined data on, say, 20 such sex differences, your chances of correctly guessing the person’s sex would become quite high. By the same principle, a singe gene might not be a very good predictor of someone’s race, but that doesn’t mean that the combined data of many genes wont be. It was on this basis that the famed population genetic A. W. F. Edwards dubbed this argument against race “Lewontin’s Fallacy” (Edwards 2002). Further more, an Fst value is not even a good measure of genetic differentiation. Consider the work done in Long and Kittles 2003, which provided a powerful demonstration of just how ridiculous an Fst subspecies criteria really is. Long and Kittles calculated the Fst value of the global human population at 11%, which is pretty typical of modern studies. They then calculated the Fst value of the global human population plus a population of chimpanzees to be 16%. Thus, the inclusion of Chimpanzees into the calculation only raised the Fst value by 5%, and most Fst based subspecies criteria would therefore conclude that a population of humans and chimps has no significantly different sub populations within it! This work is not only amusing, but illustrative of the primary problem with Fst values as a measure of genetic differentiation. Recall that an Fst value tells us how much more likely it is two gene variants will be different if they are picked out of the entire species instead of from member of the same race. Well, what if the probability that they will be different is really high even when the genes are picked from the same race. Say, 85%, for instance. Well, in that case the most that the probability of picking different genes could increase would be by 15%, which is only an Fst value of .15. More generally, the table below makes two points. First, for simple mathematical reasons, an Fst value can never be larger than one minus the sub-population heterozygosity. Second, because an Fst value is a measure of how much heterozygosity increases when gene variants are picked from the entire population rather than the same population, expressed as a percentage of the total heterozygosity, the same absolute difference between total and sub-population heterozygosity can lead to radically different Fst values depending on what the absolute values of these variables are: To connect this back to humans, our sub-population heterozygsity levels range from .70-.76 (Jorde et al. 1997). Thus, no matter how different the races were, our Fst value could never be greater than roughly 25%. Each race could literally be as different, genetically speaking, as dogs are from cats. It wouldn’t matter. Our Fst value would never seem intuitively high. and most of our genetic variation would still be contained “within races”. For these and other reasons, geneticists are increasingly recognizing that Fst values cannot be meaningfully compared across species, which have different total heterozygosities, and so, beyond testing that an Fst value is greater than zero, it cannot possibly be the foundation for criteria of sub-species (Jost 2008). Appendix 1: Alan Templeton and Fst > .25 A highly cited 1999 paper by the geneticist Alan Templeton claimed that requiring that a subspecies have an Fst value of at least 25%-30% is “standard in the nonhuman literature” (Templeton 1999). Templeton, who uses this claim to argue against the existence of human races, cites the 1997 paper “Subspecies and Classification” by Smith, Chiszar, and Montanucci, to substantiate that this Fst standard is common place in biology (Smith, Chiszar, and Montanucci, 1997.). But Smith et al. 1997 never even mentions Fst values! It appears that Templeton assumed that this is what Smith et al 1997 meant when they wrote that subspecies cannot “overlap in variation of their differentiae” by more than 25%-30%. This is almost surely not a reference to Fst values. Instead, this paper was referencing the so called “75% rule”, which is criteria of subspecies which stated that a population would count as a sub-speices if you could analyze the traits of organisms in the species and, on this basis, predict whether or not they were a member of the proposed subspecies with an error rate of 25% or less. There are several reasons for thinking that Smith et al. 1997 were referring to the 75% rule and not an Fst based criteria for subspecies: They referred to “differentia” implying that multiple traits can be used to differentiate subspecies. This is consistent with the 75% rule, several observable traits were the norm, and not an Fst value criterion. Smith et al. 1997 goes on to state “A subspecies name draws attention to a geographic segment of a species that in some way is recognizably different”. This appeal to recognizable differences clearly implies that subspecies are differentiated based on observable traits, as in the 75% rule, and not a molecular genetic analysis. As demonstrated by Haig et al. 2006, large teams of researchers reviewing the subspecies literature have never heard of Templeton’s Fst criteria. Haig et al do, however, spend several paragraphs talking about the 75% rule. As is evidenced above, an Fst criteria is not, in fact, commonly used. But the 75% rule was. Given that Smith is an expert in subspecies taxonomy who has been writing on the topic for decades, it is therefore far more likely that he was talking about the 75% rule than Templeton’s contrived criteria which can’t be found anywhere else in the literature. Thus, Templeton’s paper is based on an extremely misleading reading of Smith et al 1997 and fails to establish any Fst criteria for subspecies. Appendix 2: Joseph Graves and Sewall Wright Joseph Graves is a biologist who has written several books and countless articles arguing against the biological existence of races. In his writings he often says something such as this about Sewall Wright, the inventor of Fst values: “Wright felt the latter, measured by Fst was equivalent to the subspecies used by taxonomists (also called biological or geographical race.) Population subdivision can be calculated at individual genetic loci or for numerous genetic loci simultaneously. Wright’s statistic can range between 0 and 1.00. He arbitrarily suggested that the minimal threshold for the existence of great variation was Fst = 0.250 and moderate variation Fst = 0.15 to 0.250. He examined individual loci derived from protein electrophoresis from a variety of species, finding a range of differentiation from 0.023 to 0.501 (average Fst= 0.168). Subsequent studies of multiple loci, including whole genome analyses, have generally shown human Fst at much less than Wright’s critical value.” –Graves 2006 As we have already seen, Sewall Wright did not think that Fst values should be a criteria for sub-species. He literally dedicates an entire chapter two the fourth volume of his X to race and never mentions Fst values, not does he anywhere else state that they should be used as a criteria for subspecies. In fact, on page 85 Wright cautions readers against using Fst values as a straight forward measure of genetic differentiation: We will take F = 0.25 as an arbitrary value above which there is very great differentiation, the range of 0.15 to 0.25 as indicating moderately great differentiation. Differentiation is, however, by no means negligible if F is as small as 0.05 or even less” – Wright 1984 Thus, Graves is misleading readers by separating these two sentences, only showing his readers the first, and thus stripping it of its proper context. Wright’s views do not, in fact, lend credence to the idea that human races do no exist. source: https://thealternativehypothesis.org/index.php/2016/04/15/variation-within-and-between-races

  • Slavery

    Slavery was made uneconomical by the industrial revolution. That’s why the brits were first – because they started the industrial revolution. American abolition was partly christian, partly feminists wanting to use africans as the first step to the female vote, and partly if not mostly, so that the south (that paid the taxes that paid for the government), would not control the rest of the continent leaving the northeast an industrial power ruled by an agrarian south. … So never attribute to moral conviction that which is merely an expression of economic self interest. People never advocate for paying higher cost.

    —“Most people do not know that the south paid 3/4 of all government taxes through excise fees and only received about one quarter back in government benefits.”–Walter Wojton —“Worth mentioning the abolitionists with foresight that argued the slave trade was a demographic time bomb”–Chris Jones —“As I understand it, most working class Americans opposed slavery for the same reasons they oppose immigration today: it undercut American wages and was really only of benefit to and pushed hard by the plantation owning elite who wanted the cheaper labor…just like today.”–Scott Strong —“Our current immigration crisis it’s just another form of slavery through using low-value workers to bolster profits.”—Robert Danis

  • Slavery

    Slavery was made uneconomical by the industrial revolution. That’s why the brits were first – because they started the industrial revolution. American abolition was partly christian, partly feminists wanting to use africans as the first step to the female vote, and partly if not mostly, so that the south (that paid the taxes that paid for the government), would not control the rest of the continent leaving the northeast an industrial power ruled by an agrarian south. … So never attribute to moral conviction that which is merely an expression of economic self interest. People never advocate for paying higher cost.

    —“Most people do not know that the south paid 3/4 of all government taxes through excise fees and only received about one quarter back in government benefits.”–Walter Wojton —“Worth mentioning the abolitionists with foresight that argued the slave trade was a demographic time bomb”–Chris Jones —“As I understand it, most working class Americans opposed slavery for the same reasons they oppose immigration today: it undercut American wages and was really only of benefit to and pushed hard by the plantation owning elite who wanted the cheaper labor…just like today.”–Scott Strong —“Our current immigration crisis it’s just another form of slavery through using low-value workers to bolster profits.”—Robert Danis

  • How Did the Uk End up To Be a Multicultural Root-Less Anti White Mess

    How Did the Uk End up To Be a Multicultural Root-Less Anti White Mess https://propertarianism.com/2020/05/25/how-did-the-uk-end-up-to-be-a-multicultural-root-less-anti-white-mess/


    Source date (UTC): 2020-05-25 00:30:39 UTC

    Original post: https://twitter.com/i/web/status/1264715469824700416

  • The IE Expansion Getting Settled

    The IE Expansion Getting Settled https://propertarianism.com/2020/05/25/the-ie-expansion-getting-settled/


    Source date (UTC): 2020-05-25 00:12:29 UTC

    Original post: https://twitter.com/i/web/status/1264710896942755840

  • The IE Expansion Getting Settled

    Göran Dahl Simon Ström So is the data settled now? 1) The European-aryan branch spread west and down into and across Europe. 2) The Hitite-aryan branch spread south either thru the caucuses or by water on the coastal route (black sea). 3) the iranian-aryan branch spread north above the caucuses, above the aral sea, then back down into present day iran. 4) The Indian peoples were a mix of west eurasians from present day Iran and earlier local (afro-asiatic?) hunter gatherers. The indo-aryan branch spread into the weak(drought) Indus river peoples and either caused or completed their fall. For all intents and purpose they outbred and are now extinct? 5) The (which branch) that spread east to the yellow-river of china is now extinct? 6) Every group appears to spread by male outbreeding? by Goran Dahl 1) If by Aryan you’re referring to Indo-Iranians, they came from the West originally. More specifically, the Eastern border of the Corded Ware culture, from which they are derived, i.e. Russo-Ukraine. 2) The proto-Hittites most likely spread West from the Sredny Stog culture, and then went South via the Balkans. Sredny Stog -> Usatovo -> Ezero into Anatolia, in a crescent-like pattern following the outline of the western coastline of the Black Sea. 3) The Indo-Iranians go from Eastern Europe–their point of origin–to Central Asia, and from there on to Northeast Asia and down to the Bactria-Margiana Archaeological Complex in Afghanistan. From the BMAC, they go down into Iran and India. 4) The Indian peoples are a mix of Indo-Iranians (Steppe_MLBA), IVC people who were closely related to Iranian farmers (Iran_Neolithic) but were nevertheless a separate line, and people who were similar to the Andamanese (hence the dark skin and Australoid features). The Indo-Iranians outbred, as always. 5) Two branches reached the periphery of China: the Tocharian branch derived from the Afanasievo culture, and the Indo-Iranians (Tarim Basin mummies, Yuezhi). The Mongols of Genghis Khan’s period had significant Indo-Iranian or general North European-like admixture, and Tocharian-derived R1b clades were more widespread in their gene pool based on the samples we have available. Nowadays, local East Asian haplogroups dominate the lineages of modern Mongols to a larger extent. So it seems as though Mongols have admixture from both Indo-Iranians and the ever mysterious, elusive Tocharians. Indo-Iranians seem to have occupied all of Central Asia along with certain Chinese regions. 6) Yeah, basically. by Simon Ström Nothing of consequence has changed in this regard during the past couple of years, AFAIK. A boiling point of technological innovations was reached ~6kya causing a deluge of human mobility emanating from the Pontic-Caspian steppe. Hittites descend from the first group to split from the coherent PIE language community, that we can trace linguistically. We conjecture that they traveled via the Balkan coast becoming lords of the collapsing Old European sedentary civilization in the process, which was among the richest and most developed parts of the world at the time (imagine them like the Aztecs). The PIEs projected in several directions and waves; proto-Tocharians were likely harbored by the Afanasievo culture in Siberia–essentially a twin culture of Yamnaya–that needs separate mention because they seem to have have expanded into a demographic void in Siberia, branching off just before the next key development. A period of chaos, disease and dramatic shifts on the “western front” of early PIE movements eventually brought a new political and social order upon Europe, also transcending Yamnaya and related prior cultures. A brief period of remarkable cultural homogeneity across Eurosiberia with evidence of large-scale interconnectedness in terms of movement and kinship (Corded Ware culture et al; Late PIE) coincided with an equilibration of formerly distinct “east” and “west” European gene pools (both of which were originally derived from variants of primordial h-gs and Near Eastern farmer-pastoralists having pushed north). This marks the ethnogenesis of modern white people in terms of autosomal DNA and uniparental markers in broad strokes, as the resultant genetic structure is largely intact in northern and central Europe. Then, mobility seems to have decreased again and uniformity necessarily faded. Various lineages began to differentiate into distinct cultures harboring the remaining known Indo-European languages (Nordic Bronze Age/Germanic, bronze age Brits speaking an undocumented language, Celts in central Europe and their Italic cousins and proto-Greek tribes moving south, and a “satem” group splitting into Balto-Slavs and early Indo-Iranians somewhere in eastern Europe ~4.5kya, officially ending what we define as the Proto-Indo-European language period. Göran explained well what happened with the Indo-Iranians as they expanded from south of the Urals. They were essentially very successful but drowned genetically as they inherited the prior Indus valley and Iranian plateau civilizations–however markers of their paternal ancestry are dominant to this day. In central Asia, a lot of mixing and displacement subsequently occurred with the rise of Turco-Mongols beginning in the Iron/Late Bronze Age.

  • The IE Expansion Getting Settled

    Göran Dahl Simon Ström So is the data settled now? 1) The European-aryan branch spread west and down into and across Europe. 2) The Hitite-aryan branch spread south either thru the caucuses or by water on the coastal route (black sea). 3) the iranian-aryan branch spread north above the caucuses, above the aral sea, then back down into present day iran. 4) The Indian peoples were a mix of west eurasians from present day Iran and earlier local (afro-asiatic?) hunter gatherers. The indo-aryan branch spread into the weak(drought) Indus river peoples and either caused or completed their fall. For all intents and purpose they outbred and are now extinct? 5) The (which branch) that spread east to the yellow-river of china is now extinct? 6) Every group appears to spread by male outbreeding? by Goran Dahl 1) If by Aryan you’re referring to Indo-Iranians, they came from the West originally. More specifically, the Eastern border of the Corded Ware culture, from which they are derived, i.e. Russo-Ukraine. 2) The proto-Hittites most likely spread West from the Sredny Stog culture, and then went South via the Balkans. Sredny Stog -> Usatovo -> Ezero into Anatolia, in a crescent-like pattern following the outline of the western coastline of the Black Sea. 3) The Indo-Iranians go from Eastern Europe–their point of origin–to Central Asia, and from there on to Northeast Asia and down to the Bactria-Margiana Archaeological Complex in Afghanistan. From the BMAC, they go down into Iran and India. 4) The Indian peoples are a mix of Indo-Iranians (Steppe_MLBA), IVC people who were closely related to Iranian farmers (Iran_Neolithic) but were nevertheless a separate line, and people who were similar to the Andamanese (hence the dark skin and Australoid features). The Indo-Iranians outbred, as always. 5) Two branches reached the periphery of China: the Tocharian branch derived from the Afanasievo culture, and the Indo-Iranians (Tarim Basin mummies, Yuezhi). The Mongols of Genghis Khan’s period had significant Indo-Iranian or general North European-like admixture, and Tocharian-derived R1b clades were more widespread in their gene pool based on the samples we have available. Nowadays, local East Asian haplogroups dominate the lineages of modern Mongols to a larger extent. So it seems as though Mongols have admixture from both Indo-Iranians and the ever mysterious, elusive Tocharians. Indo-Iranians seem to have occupied all of Central Asia along with certain Chinese regions. 6) Yeah, basically. by Simon Ström Nothing of consequence has changed in this regard during the past couple of years, AFAIK. A boiling point of technological innovations was reached ~6kya causing a deluge of human mobility emanating from the Pontic-Caspian steppe. Hittites descend from the first group to split from the coherent PIE language community, that we can trace linguistically. We conjecture that they traveled via the Balkan coast becoming lords of the collapsing Old European sedentary civilization in the process, which was among the richest and most developed parts of the world at the time (imagine them like the Aztecs). The PIEs projected in several directions and waves; proto-Tocharians were likely harbored by the Afanasievo culture in Siberia–essentially a twin culture of Yamnaya–that needs separate mention because they seem to have have expanded into a demographic void in Siberia, branching off just before the next key development. A period of chaos, disease and dramatic shifts on the “western front” of early PIE movements eventually brought a new political and social order upon Europe, also transcending Yamnaya and related prior cultures. A brief period of remarkable cultural homogeneity across Eurosiberia with evidence of large-scale interconnectedness in terms of movement and kinship (Corded Ware culture et al; Late PIE) coincided with an equilibration of formerly distinct “east” and “west” European gene pools (both of which were originally derived from variants of primordial h-gs and Near Eastern farmer-pastoralists having pushed north). This marks the ethnogenesis of modern white people in terms of autosomal DNA and uniparental markers in broad strokes, as the resultant genetic structure is largely intact in northern and central Europe. Then, mobility seems to have decreased again and uniformity necessarily faded. Various lineages began to differentiate into distinct cultures harboring the remaining known Indo-European languages (Nordic Bronze Age/Germanic, bronze age Brits speaking an undocumented language, Celts in central Europe and their Italic cousins and proto-Greek tribes moving south, and a “satem” group splitting into Balto-Slavs and early Indo-Iranians somewhere in eastern Europe ~4.5kya, officially ending what we define as the Proto-Indo-European language period. Göran explained well what happened with the Indo-Iranians as they expanded from south of the Urals. They were essentially very successful but drowned genetically as they inherited the prior Indus valley and Iranian plateau civilizations–however markers of their paternal ancestry are dominant to this day. In central Asia, a lot of mixing and displacement subsequently occurred with the rise of Turco-Mongols beginning in the Iron/Late Bronze Age.

  • Pre and Postwar Europe – and The World Order that Is Coming Back Into Natural St

    Pre and Postwar Europe – and The World Order that Is Coming Back Into Natural State https://propertarianism.com/2020/05/24/pre-and-postwar-europe-and-the-world-order-that-is-coming-back-into-natural-state/


    Source date (UTC): 2020-05-24 23:49:45 UTC

    Original post: https://twitter.com/i/web/status/1264705176033771521

  • Pre and Postwar Europe – and The World Order that Is Coming Back Into Natural State

    Feb 1, 2020, 9:23 AM

    –“Anglos were against germans”–

    I disagree entirely. America prewar was 50% ethnically german and the heartland still is. America was on the german side in both wars until it couldn’t afford to be. Before 1914, Germany (manufacturing) and England (navy, market) had the same economic interdependency as china(manufacturing) and America (navy, market). The British empire wanted, as America until Trump has wanted, to restore the balance of powers – including the Russians and the ottomans. Otherwise they would not have prohibited the Russian reconquest of Istanbul, or the restoration of the german empire post napoleonic conquest. This is the problem with ‘overdoing’ capitalism (middle class government): we seek profits and stability of profits because of the expansion of economic risk under middle class government, when we should always seek the natural self interest of the great powers, and only interfere once the outcome is far enough along that we can choose sides – as we did by going after the communists. I would argue that yes, the British were swayed to jewish extractive financialism instead of Christian profiting from domestication under white mans burden, after ending the prohibition on jews in the state, and the rise of Disraeli’s government. The British problem with Germany was that in response to napoleon’s terrors in Europe, Germany unified, and began to defend her (huge) continental interests. Had we sided with Germany the empires would all still exist and the world would not have experienced communism, the failure to Complete the colonial program of world-modernization, loss of european confidence in the european program post war, jewish undermining of european, British, and american civilization post war, the immigration crisis that has almost achieved jewish cosmopolitan ends, and the coming civil war – and islam could have been transformed, because tribal boundaries would have been possible to install. The mistake was our misunderstanding of the heart of german civilization being in the north and particularly Prussian – but the french post-war wanted to ‘de-Prussify’ Germany by manipulating american morality (we’re wrong), and making it possible for France to conquer and rule the continent (as they are trying to do with the EU). Unfortunately, France chose more socialism and agrarianism than Germany, and Germany chose her traditional excellence in manufacturing, so between the german mark and german industry and german education and german culture, Germany economically rules by demonstrated superiority …. until …. there is a decline in auto sales … and germans revolt at a loss of (everything) and she re-asserts herself in defense, and they are stuck with France having confidence and the will to rule Europe, and Germans needing to restore their will to rule themselves and Europe. Yet it is France that maintains colonies in Africa, and is the origin of Jewish intellectual influence, and Muslim immigration and invasion into Europe. France has always been the enemy of Europe since she was more latinized and retained imperial ambitions and catholic church dominance, including her long standing attempt to relocate the papacy to France. It’s the Germanics that have tried to complete the transition back to SOVEREIGNTY while France continues the jewish christian (catholic) pursuit of monopoly authority. The countryside may be germanic. but France is Paris, and Paris might as well be Constantinople trying to conquer the western empire. Russia is, as I had hoped, taking over her natural position as the leader in the middle eastern sphere of influence. France is, as I had warned, still attempting her conquest of Europe and the destruction of germanic civilization – out of overconfidence and arrogance (both unwarranted). Germany is still indoctrinated by what they call their (special history) except they were in the right and need a generation to unlearn blaming themselves for what was a french, anglo, and Russian attack on their attempt to unify the germanic peoples and the lands which germanic excellence had influenced. If Germany gains independence and restores herself, then the slavic and baltic peoples will strategically, economically, align with them. The Anglosphere has time to unify again, draw ‘the rest’ of Canada into it’s sphere, and prevent the conquest of Australia by Chinese interests, thereby creating enough of a population to not be the victim of a hostile china, a powerful Russia-Islam, an islam, and a hostile french conquest of Europe. The balkans are screwed until the Russians or united eastern european Intermarium can save them by completing the removal of islam from old europe as thoroughly as the spanish have from iberia. These are not simple moral choices. They are choices necessary for western survival. All of this is made possible (a) by Brexit and (b) by american Red-Exit … or re-conquest. The latter I hope we will begin this year.

  • Pre and Postwar Europe – and The World Order that Is Coming Back Into Natural State

    Feb 1, 2020, 9:23 AM

    –“Anglos were against germans”–

    I disagree entirely. America prewar was 50% ethnically german and the heartland still is. America was on the german side in both wars until it couldn’t afford to be. Before 1914, Germany (manufacturing) and England (navy, market) had the same economic interdependency as china(manufacturing) and America (navy, market). The British empire wanted, as America until Trump has wanted, to restore the balance of powers – including the Russians and the ottomans. Otherwise they would not have prohibited the Russian reconquest of Istanbul, or the restoration of the german empire post napoleonic conquest. This is the problem with ‘overdoing’ capitalism (middle class government): we seek profits and stability of profits because of the expansion of economic risk under middle class government, when we should always seek the natural self interest of the great powers, and only interfere once the outcome is far enough along that we can choose sides – as we did by going after the communists. I would argue that yes, the British were swayed to jewish extractive financialism instead of Christian profiting from domestication under white mans burden, after ending the prohibition on jews in the state, and the rise of Disraeli’s government. The British problem with Germany was that in response to napoleon’s terrors in Europe, Germany unified, and began to defend her (huge) continental interests. Had we sided with Germany the empires would all still exist and the world would not have experienced communism, the failure to Complete the colonial program of world-modernization, loss of european confidence in the european program post war, jewish undermining of european, British, and american civilization post war, the immigration crisis that has almost achieved jewish cosmopolitan ends, and the coming civil war – and islam could have been transformed, because tribal boundaries would have been possible to install. The mistake was our misunderstanding of the heart of german civilization being in the north and particularly Prussian – but the french post-war wanted to ‘de-Prussify’ Germany by manipulating american morality (we’re wrong), and making it possible for France to conquer and rule the continent (as they are trying to do with the EU). Unfortunately, France chose more socialism and agrarianism than Germany, and Germany chose her traditional excellence in manufacturing, so between the german mark and german industry and german education and german culture, Germany economically rules by demonstrated superiority …. until …. there is a decline in auto sales … and germans revolt at a loss of (everything) and she re-asserts herself in defense, and they are stuck with France having confidence and the will to rule Europe, and Germans needing to restore their will to rule themselves and Europe. Yet it is France that maintains colonies in Africa, and is the origin of Jewish intellectual influence, and Muslim immigration and invasion into Europe. France has always been the enemy of Europe since she was more latinized and retained imperial ambitions and catholic church dominance, including her long standing attempt to relocate the papacy to France. It’s the Germanics that have tried to complete the transition back to SOVEREIGNTY while France continues the jewish christian (catholic) pursuit of monopoly authority. The countryside may be germanic. but France is Paris, and Paris might as well be Constantinople trying to conquer the western empire. Russia is, as I had hoped, taking over her natural position as the leader in the middle eastern sphere of influence. France is, as I had warned, still attempting her conquest of Europe and the destruction of germanic civilization – out of overconfidence and arrogance (both unwarranted). Germany is still indoctrinated by what they call their (special history) except they were in the right and need a generation to unlearn blaming themselves for what was a french, anglo, and Russian attack on their attempt to unify the germanic peoples and the lands which germanic excellence had influenced. If Germany gains independence and restores herself, then the slavic and baltic peoples will strategically, economically, align with them. The Anglosphere has time to unify again, draw ‘the rest’ of Canada into it’s sphere, and prevent the conquest of Australia by Chinese interests, thereby creating enough of a population to not be the victim of a hostile china, a powerful Russia-Islam, an islam, and a hostile french conquest of Europe. The balkans are screwed until the Russians or united eastern european Intermarium can save them by completing the removal of islam from old europe as thoroughly as the spanish have from iberia. These are not simple moral choices. They are choices necessary for western survival. All of this is made possible (a) by Brexit and (b) by american Red-Exit … or re-conquest. The latter I hope we will begin this year.