GREAT QUESTION –“Why not just say: “Slave morality is female morality, and mast

GREAT QUESTION
–“Why not just say: “Slave morality is female morality, and master slave is male morality, because these are terms for sex differences in instinctual responsibility for the commons.” Why use “indifferent from”?”–

Because I was trained in economics and I work in epistemology and decidability, and a such “is” means equals or identical to, and that would be false.

1) In economics, things are either marginally indifferent or marginally different, but almost never the same. Ergo, if you have 100 bags of flour to make it through the season, the first back is of lower subjective value than the last. If we are buying that same flour on the market in a commodities trade, then it’s possible they are marginally indifferent for all purposes. Despite that there are no such conditions because all flour, like all oil, is not identical in composition and quality. Ergo “identity is a property of the risks of inequality”.

2) In decidability and in operational prose within decidability, we only use the word ‘is’ as ‘exists as x’ not as ‘is equal to or approximately equal to’, because the copula (the verb to be) is the means by which most sophistry, deceit, and philosophical nonsense is constructed. For that reason, we generally prohibit the use of the verb to-be in proofs of constructability (truth statements).

So your question is the equivalent of why a mathematician uses specific symbols: it’s the same reason. Symbols in math, and operational language in testimony, are just a requirement of the grammar of disambiguation necessary for the use of each in the conduct of any measurement. Because ambiguity is the cause of logical falsehood.

I hope that very nerdy explanation helps. 😉

Reply addressees: @patriciamdavis @TheAutistocrat @PaulGottfried6 @ConceptualJames