Again given the possible constitution of a god or gods: 1 – Outside the universe

Again given the possible constitution of a god or gods:
1 – Outside the universe
2 – Of the universe
3 – Within the universe
4 – A consequence of mankind
5 – A product of mankind.
If the Laws of Nature, including the Natural Law, is consistent regardless of that constitution, what is the difference in our attribution of origin when the ‘commands’ are the same no matter which?