I don’t know what record of miracles you claim has been proven but we are not ev

I don’t know what record of miracles you claim has been proven but we are not even certain that the man Jesus existed – as far as we know it’s about forty percent, and the rest is Paul’s manufacture (though I am in the camp he existed).

And while I have little doubt that did Moses exist, and when he brought those tablets to the people, he believed god had spoken to him at least in spirit(intuition) or dream, that does not mean it was more than his mind at work in the matter. We must understand the semitic mind is not of european mind and they live life in a partial dream state compared to the european empirical mind. So there is a greater relationship between ‘spirit’ (intuition) and emotion than in european peoples. (Or at least european men).

But my point is, we don’t need these things to be true if there is consistency between the laws of the universe we discover by science, and the reason of european philosophy, and the occult wisdom of the primitive semites, then at least the underlying meaning we can take from those lessons is true (or at least not false).

It is the consistency between those three points, not the exclusivity of any, that is the only proof we have discovered something that may be in fact the mind, word, and deed of god.

Reply addressees: @ArmoryOC