1) Correct. Because only classical liberalism (rule of law, of the empirically d

1) Correct. Because only classical liberalism (rule of law, of the empirically discovered natural law of individual sovereignty, reciprocity, and responsibility(duty)) is non-arbitrary (scientific), and sufficiently precise to describe a set of criteria (formula) for outlawing the behavior, when that behavior(undermining, reputation destruction, social construction, sedition, institutional destruction, treason) is natural to humans, because ‘indirect crime by social means’ is profitable for groups but hasn’t been outlawed yet.

2) european civ is and always has been trifunctional with military(force/defense), legal(exchange/boycott), and religious(exclusion/inclusion) elites. So it is more tolerant of competition between elites – adjudicated by the natural common concurrent law. This means the law must keep relative pace with evolution in the criminality of human behavior. For a variety of reasons, we failed to keep pace in the postwar period, because of the combination of the winfall of industrialization, the introduction of women into voting, the capacity of debt expansion, and the replacement of the right-church and morality with leftist-academy and economics as as substitute for morality, plus the rez-kelsen-dworkin attack on the law itself and the rise of lawfare during the 1960s.

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